Just finished reading Foolss and Mortals and enjoyed it very much. The deeper I got into it, the more I appreciated what you were doing with it and the story you were telling. Loved all the details about the theaters and the plays.

My question is this: why did Shakespeare treat Richard so badly? At one point, Richard is thinking something like, “A couple years ago, before my brother stopped being civil to me…”, which seems to indicate that something happened between them, a particular event.  Was that shown or explained or hinted at, and I missed it?

It seemed to me that Shakespeare hadn’t much use for Richard from the start, and I’ve wondered just how much he knew about Sir Godfrey’s habits when he turned Richard over to him at the tender age of 13 or so. But even so, I get the feeling that it was something more specific that caused a rift. Would appreciate any light you care to shed on this.

Thanks for (yet again) a wonderful read.

Beth