Just a quick question prompted by the debate over the pronunciation of Badajoz (Badahoth?). I read, somewhere else entirely, that there was a King of Spain who spoke with a lisp and the people, replicated his speech impediment so as not to embarrass him. However, it was not something that the then Revolutionaries in the modern day, Spanish speaking Countries of South and Central America felt it necessary to do. Would you happen to know if there is any truth in this apocryphal sounding story. Keith Harris, Retford, NOTTS.