Mr. Cornwell Sorry to contact you again, I know you’re busy, but I have a rather specific question. About a week ago on the BB someone mentioned a post regarding the “F-word” and why you don’t use it in your books. I tried to find this in the question archives but came up dry. I know that it entered common usage in the late 19th century and was around since the 16th, but I’m a little wary of putting it into a Londoner’s mouth around 1750. I finally decided to use it since showing a modern reader that a historical character used “vulgar and offensive language” is easier when modern-day vulgarity is used. (So many of the religious blasphemies have lost their sting in our more secular culture.) I also used it on the, I fully admit, rather thin excuse that Patrick O’Brian did it in “Master and Commander.” I suppose it’s a question of whether one would rather recalibrate the language or the reader. Or does it have something to do with the publisher? I’m currently debating this with a professor (who is against its use) and am curious as to your opinion. Thanks for your time. PS: The London research trip went well. Thanks for suggesting “The Italian Boy.” Rob Rath