Mr. Cornwell,
I’ve read Fools and Mortals and thoroughly enjoyed it. The topic of pederasty comes up with the character Sir Godfrey and Richards “training” such as it was. While such things surely existed to some degree in all periods and places, is there particular reason to suspect that it was an especially big problem in Elizabethan England or was it more of a choice on your part to make that part of the background of the story? This is not to suggest that such things can’t or shouldn’t be written about, but I will admit that I was surprised that William was so willing to send his younger brother to Godfrey and that Godfrey himself got off rather lightly in the story overall.
Ethan